• chuckleslord@lemmy.world
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    2 days ago

    Yeah, just like it was an Italian man that first called them Indians. Wouldn’t make it Italy’s fault if Americans called it Indialand, though.

    • mitchty@lemmy.sdf.org
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      5 hours ago

      So Americans alone are at fault for using the term German in English then? The chain of logic here is impressive I’ll say that.

      • chuckleslord@lemmy.world
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        4 hours ago

        Really? That’s why I got a down vote? Dude, my metaphor in the first comment was likening it to “if we (Americans) called First Nation land ‘Indialand’”. So, no. If you map the metaphor back onto to the counter, it’s the UK’s fault, not America’s.