• mitchty@lemmy.sdf.org
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    5 hours ago

    So Americans alone are at fault for using the term German in English then? The chain of logic here is impressive I’ll say that.

    • chuckleslord@lemmy.world
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      4 hours ago

      Really? That’s why I got a down vote? Dude, my metaphor in the first comment was likening it to “if we (Americans) called First Nation land ‘Indialand’”. So, no. If you map the metaphor back onto to the counter, it’s the UK’s fault, not America’s.