Huh. NATOpedia tells me that the Latin has always been the predominant script for Polish. But it only traces this back to the 13th century or maybe the 10th, coinciding with the Christianization of Poland. Supposedly it was only a spoken previously, which sounds to me like historical revisionism to erase a Cyrillic predecessor. But if Cryllic only dates back to the 10th century… 🤷



















Of course we have considered that.
Have you considered making an actual argument instead of a thought-terminating rhetorical question?